Skip to main content

Was Paul's Law Observance Inconsistent?

In our most recent post on 1 Corinthians we covered chapter 9. In that post when commenting on 9:19-23, I stated that, following Mark Nanos, Paul changed his basis of argument in his preaching depending on his audience. In saying this I was resisting the standard interpretation that Paul varied his behavior, particularly in relation to the law depending on his audience. Since I'm breaking with the consensus a bit, I thought I should give a fuller explanation of why I cam to that conclusion. But first let's present the text from the NRSV:

19 For though I am free with respect to all, I have made myself a slave to all, so that I might win more of them. 20 To the Jews I became as a Jew, in order to win Jews. To those under the law I became as one under the law (though I myself am not under the law) so that I might win those under the law. 21 To those outside the law I became as one outside the law (though I am not free from God’s law but am under Christ’s law) so that I might win those outside the law. 22 To the weak I became weak, so that I might win the weak. I have become all things to all people, that I might by all means save some. 23 I do it all for the sake of the gospel, so that I may share in its blessings.


Paul opens the paragraph discussing both his goal and his means. His goal is to draw people to follow Jesus. He describes his means as slavery. What exactly did that require? Normally, when one became a slave they adopted their master's entire way of life including their religion.[1] Paul obviously did not adopt the religious practices of others so there are some limits to the parallel and we will have to look at what Paul says in subsequent verses to understand what he means by becoming a slave to all.

In verses 20 and 21 he states that he 'becomes' a member of one of three different groups when he is with them, Jews, Gentile proselytes, and pagans. There are two immediate things to notice. First, how could Paul become a Gentile proselyte? In what sense would that make sense? That's one thing that he literally could not become.[2] The second thing to note is that he seems to distance himself from two of the groups, those under the law and those outside the law. He does not distance himself similarly from the Jews, making it appear like he is identifying himself with them.

This then pushes us to a further point. If Paul saw himself as being Jewish, then, if he didn't follow the law when he was with Gentiles, he would have been open to charges of duplicity and inconsistency. I will quote Nanos's powerful conclusion here:

Paul's lifestyle adaptability involves conduct that can be variously described as "mimicking," "imitating," "deceiving," "tricking," or "aping" the conduct of the other in Torah-defined terms, either to observe or not observe Torah, but without sharing the others' propositional bases for or against Torah-observance. Paul is by definition not Torah-observant consistently or as a matter of conviction. At the same time, he implicitly if not explicitly shares the propositional bases of non-Jews who do not observe Torah, although perhaps for different reasons, as in the case of idolaters. In both the cases of Jews and idolaters he misrepresents his convictions and those concomitant with the message he delivers to them.

The problems with the traditional interpretation of this passage seem severe enough that we must search for an alternative explanation. Nanos offers the suggestion that Paul merely modulated his rhetorical approach and argumentative base depending on the group he was evangelizing. That seems plausible and has external corroboration from Acts. So in the end Paul's discussion of his enslavement to others is more a statement of his empathy and willing, costly service to different groups.

----------------------------------------------
[1] Pointed out by Ciampa and Rosner.

[2] A point made by Nanos.

Comments

Popular posts from this blog

More Calvinist than Calvin?

I'm working on a paper on the topic of divine sovereignty and human freedom. Occasionally on this topic (or the subtopic of election) you will hear people through out the barb at strong Calvinists that they're 'being more Calvinist than Calvin.' After having read Calvin carefully on the issue I don't think that there's any validity to that charge. I don't see a material difference here between Calvin and say John Piper. Here are several quotes from the Institutes to prove my point. 'All events are governed by God's secret plan.' I.xvi.2 'Governing heaven and earth by his providence, he also so regulates all things that nothing takes place without his deliberation.' I.xvi.3 'Nothing happens except what is knowingly and willingly decreed by him.' I.xvi.3 Calvin explicitly rejects a limited providence, 'one that by a general motion revolves and drives the system of the universe, with its several parts, but which does not specifc

Galatians 2:11-14: The circumcision group

11 When Cephas came to Antioch, I opposed him to his face, because he stood condemned. 12 For before certain people came from James, he used to eat with the Gentiles. But when they arrived, he began to draw back and separate himself from the Gentiles because he was afraid of those who belonged to the circumcision group. 13 The other Jews joined him in his hypocrisy, so that by their hypocrisy even Barnabas was led astray. 14 When I saw that they were not acting in line with the truth of the gospel, I said to Cephas in front of them all, "You are a Jew, yet you live like a Gentile and not like a Jew. How is it, then, that you force Gentiles to follow Jewish customs? (TNIV) There's an important issue that we need to wrestle with in this passage, and it's the question of whether or not the people from James and the circumcision group are the same group. I am not inclined to think that they are. The ensuing discussion is drawn from Longenecker's commentary pp 73-5

Dating Galatians and Harmonization with Acts

We've gotten to the point where how we date Galatians and where we fit it into the narrative of Acts will affect our interpretation in a significant manner. The first question that we have to address is, which visit to Jerusalem is Paul recounting in Galatians 2:1-10 ? Is it the famine relief visit of Acts 11:27-30 or the Jerusalem council of Acts 15 ? First, I think it's worthwhile to point out that it's not all that obvious. Scholars are divided on this issue (even Evangelical scholars). In favor of the theory of Galatians 2:1-10 referring to the Acts 11 visit are the following: This visit clearly is prompted by a revelation by the Holy Spirit. The Acts 15 gathering seems to be a public gathering, where the one described in Galatians is private. Paul never alludes to a letter sent to the diaspora churches which could have definitively won the case for him. The issue of food laws was already decided by James. Why would men coming from him in Galatians 2:11-14 be advocat